Quote from fvmn:
I understand this. But that's not what I am talking about.
My question is, why would the IV change in an option which is not traded at all?
Let's extend your example a bit further. Let's say, there is another option with different expiration date. There are no trades in that option. Can you give me an explanation, why would IV of this option change when someone is buying the other option?
All the options on IBM are related - some closely, some distantly.
Let's start with the two most closely-related options - a put and a call at the same strike. In our previous example, as the IBM 100 calls are being bid up, the 100 puts will be bid up almost the exact same amount because of their close relationship. If I can sell the 100 calls 5 cents higher than I was a minute ago, then I'm willing to pay 5 cents more for 100 puts. There's an arbitrage relationship there.
The next closest thing to those 100 calls are the puts and calls at nearby strikes - the 95 and 105 puts and calls. If I sell 100 calls at .55, then .60, then .65, then .70, etc., I am now very short premium and getting nervous. I can reduce my risk considerably by buying premium at the 95 and 105 strikes. So even if the volume in those strikes is zero, my bid for puts and calls at those strikes has risen considerably.
Less related to those 100 calls are puts and calls at distant strikes. By buying those, I can somewhat cover the risk I've exposed myself to by being short all those 100 calls. Another way to cover my risk is to buy puts and calls in other months.
So you can see that option premium on IBM - also known as time value or volatility on IBM - is an asset class. If I have exposed myself to risk by massively selling 100 calls - being massively short IBM volatility, I'm now very anxious to reduce my risk by buying IBM volatility somewhere else. I'm willing to pay a lot more for EVERY IBM option than I was yesterday, before I sold all those 100 calls. Therefore, the IV on all IBM options will rise.