M mahram Nov 15, 2008 #1 i was wondering how companies can logically say there not using government money to pay for bonuses and parties,etc when they borrow government money. If they didnt get the government money they would be in bankruptcy. So i just dont get it.
i was wondering how companies can logically say there not using government money to pay for bonuses and parties,etc when they borrow government money. If they didnt get the government money they would be in bankruptcy. So i just dont get it.
