A SPAC is basically a bag of cash, backed by about $9-9.5 per share, waiting to do a deal to invest into a private firm.
Now a deal is announced, the target is a strong name in a sexy industry, the SPAC holders like the name and want to stay involved and happy to pay the deal maker by getting 20% diluted.
However good the target is, SPAC is simply a cash investor + a public shell, nothing more, so if the investment deal (merger term) is more or less reasonably priced, the remaining SPAC holders will lose a bit through dilution as each share is only backed by $7-8 post-founder-share.
If the deal is slightly under-priced, the SPAC holder should break even at about $10.
If the deal is very under-priced, the SPAC holder can win by paying all the dilution bringing cash below $10.
Still I don't get how can a SPAC trade at $20-30. The deal has to be substantially under-priced by a factor of 3-4 (leaving 3x+ cash on the table) to make it pay.
Say, ABCD went public raising $1bn, has announced merging with a sexy AI firm FireAI, ABCD share trading at $25, post-merger cash is around $7/share. FireAI is valued at 10bn in the deal post-money, so original ABCD holders will own about 7%, sponsor 2%, original FireAI guys about 90%. For the ABCD shareholders buying at $25 to be above-water, the post-merger firm has to be valued above $30bn (under-priced by more 3x).
Fair enough, IPOs are often under-priced and IPOs often see big price jumps. But a target owners are private equity firms and I doubt they have as much incentive to underprice than a distributed IPO, and even then wouldn't underprice by a substantial factor.
What am I missing?
Now a deal is announced, the target is a strong name in a sexy industry, the SPAC holders like the name and want to stay involved and happy to pay the deal maker by getting 20% diluted.
However good the target is, SPAC is simply a cash investor + a public shell, nothing more, so if the investment deal (merger term) is more or less reasonably priced, the remaining SPAC holders will lose a bit through dilution as each share is only backed by $7-8 post-founder-share.
If the deal is slightly under-priced, the SPAC holder should break even at about $10.
If the deal is very under-priced, the SPAC holder can win by paying all the dilution bringing cash below $10.
Still I don't get how can a SPAC trade at $20-30. The deal has to be substantially under-priced by a factor of 3-4 (leaving 3x+ cash on the table) to make it pay.
Say, ABCD went public raising $1bn, has announced merging with a sexy AI firm FireAI, ABCD share trading at $25, post-merger cash is around $7/share. FireAI is valued at 10bn in the deal post-money, so original ABCD holders will own about 7%, sponsor 2%, original FireAI guys about 90%. For the ABCD shareholders buying at $25 to be above-water, the post-merger firm has to be valued above $30bn (under-priced by more 3x).
Fair enough, IPOs are often under-priced and IPOs often see big price jumps. But a target owners are private equity firms and I doubt they have as much incentive to underprice than a distributed IPO, and even then wouldn't underprice by a substantial factor.
What am I missing?