What kind of operational issues? I heard old men say T+3 would bring about chaos. If options can settle overnight, why not stocks?Not true. Cutting the settlement period down to 1 day is going to cause a lot of operational issues
What kind of operational issues? I heard old men say T+3 would bring about chaos. If options can settle overnight, why not stocks?Not true. Cutting the settlement period down to 1 day is going to cause a lot of operational issues
Move to SPED forum, thanks.
This is IMO not true, because in a margin account you are forced to use margin all the time, ie. always!Just because you have a margin account doesn't mean someone has a gun to your head forcing you to use margin. It's nice to know it's there though if you do need it. In a hot market that extra buying power comes in handy.
Can you do a CoveredCall trade (ie. LongStock + ShortCall) without using any margin in your MarginAcct? I doubt it.
Ie. using just your own funds, not any margin loan from the broker.
This is IMO not true, because in a margin account you are forced to use margin all the time, ie. always!
Your own funds is not treated first, and only after that margin gets used. Nope!
I know, the question is whether one can do the same also in a MarginAcct w/o using any margin.Well, you can. You can do a covered call (Option Level 1) in a cash account.
How can one differentiate the both in a MarginAcct? Is it possible at all?Sorry, but this is not accurate. You always use your money first. And using leverage and borrowing money on margin are not the same thing.

w/o using any margin.
IMO this cannot be true, even mathematically impossible
B/c the BuyingPower in a MarginAcct is computed from the own funds.
But when own funds get used first then BuyingPower would become zero, so the premise/promise of the usual RegT margin with "Intraday 4x margin" and "Overnight 2x margin" could even mathematically never be possible...
Try this:I'm at a loss on how to explain this to you.

Source: https://thismatter.com/money/stocks/margin.htmThe margin is determined at the end of each trading day, which determines the amount of margin required for the following trading day. Any securities bought in a margin account are held in the broker's street name, and the margin agreement usually gives the broker the right to lend the securities out for a short sale.
I wasn't talking about options,I was referring to straight stock trading.You're the one who brought up options. If you have 20k of your own money in the account and dont buy more than 20k worth of stocks(total) you aren't using margin. And no one has a gun to your head forcing you to buy more than 20k worth of stocks. And with a margin account you dont have to worry about some silly "settlement" date.This is IMO not true, because in a margin account you are forced to use margin all the time, ie. always!
Your own funds is not treated first, and only after that margin gets used. Nope!
Don't know how the situation nowadays is, but in the old days, say 5 years or so ago, this was the case I had experienced, and I definitely didn't like it...
Can you do a CoveredCall trade (ie. LongStock + ShortCall) without using any margin in your MarginAcct? I doubt it.
Ie. using just your own funds, not any margin loan from the broker.
Here's an interesting table of US brokers with their margin rates:
https://investingintheweb.com/brokers/brokers-lowest-margin-rates/
I mean options trading, yes.I wasn't talking about options,I was referring to straight stock trading.You're the one who brought up options. If you have 20k of your own money in the account and dont buy more than 20k worth of stocks(total) you aren't using margin. And no one has a gun to your head forcing you to buy more than 20k worth of stocks. And with a margin account you dont have to worry about some silly "settlement" date.