I understand that the total value of all open gold futures contracts significantly exceeds the value of available supply of physical gold in the world. Can anyone explain how this can be so? If a future allows for delivery in the future, how can the value of outstanding contracts exceed the value of available supply? For example what would happen if all holders of gold futures wished to take delivery of their long future positions at expiry - the commodity would not be deliverable, then what?
Thanks
J-S
Thanks
J-S