Quote from scriabinop23:
Yea but did you see my point: they have the right to sell the gold at higher than the ~$435-450 price if market price is higher. I haven't read all the details of this structure, but it just looks like a method they've secured their financing. The way it reads (what I boldfaced), it looks like they are holding 95000 (100 oz denominated) OTC gold put contracts with average maturity about 5-6 yrs out, at strike price of mid 400s...
Why should they book the loss if:
#1) $450 is at or above their cost of production and they have sufficient cash reserves.
#2) In their agreements, they have agreed to never be vulnerable to margin call risk.
Since #2 is the case, there is no cashflow or collateral risk (margin posting not required), so I don't see why they should mark to market. I assume they are already depressing the value of the assets correlated to this hedge loss.
But my point is the hedge loss is in itself at odds with that wording I just boldfaced. So looks just like a source of ambiguity, or perhaps the wording was incorrectly written.