I am just starting to paper trade. My research and reading to date indicated that covered calls should have a strike price above the current trading price. However, I am looking at two different trades. I would like to confirm what would be likely to happen in the second trade listed below in the real world.
1) buy 100 shares JCOM @ current price $60.55 (+4.95 commission), and sell 5/20 $65.00 call @ $1.45 (bid) (less 0.50 commission). This is the type of trade I have been reading about. It is pretty straight forward on outcomes.
2) buy 100 shares JCOM @ $60.55 (+4.95 commission), and sell 5/20 $60.00 call @ $4.70 (bid) (less 0.50 commission). This seems too good to be true.
Any helpful answers or other advise will be appreciated.
1) buy 100 shares JCOM @ current price $60.55 (+4.95 commission), and sell 5/20 $65.00 call @ $1.45 (bid) (less 0.50 commission). This is the type of trade I have been reading about. It is pretty straight forward on outcomes.
2) buy 100 shares JCOM @ $60.55 (+4.95 commission), and sell 5/20 $60.00 call @ $4.70 (bid) (less 0.50 commission). This seems too good to be true.
- Is it unlikely that I would assigned in the near term with call prices high?
- How close to expiration date would assignment be likely?
- Generally speaking, how close does trading price need to be to strike price for assignment to be likely, .01? .10? etc?
Any helpful answers or other advise will be appreciated.
