After a few weeks of reading, made it through the whole thread (what a resource); on top of my reading of AFTS (and halfway through Systematic Trading - should have started with this one). Wanted to express my gratitude to Rob, as well as all the other insight participants on this forum.
I have been running a manual system (I don't have strong coding skills so it is a bunch of crazy excel worksheets that sound like how CTAs used to do it 30 years ago) for the past 18 months that has evolved from trying to reinvent the wheel in terms of system structure (while targeting carry & trend); to evolving to something very close to Rob's static system as I learned best practices. Currently have ~30 instruments in the system; plus 5 european equity index futures that I run with a related cross-sectional system; plus a long bias to bonds (I add a constant value to my forecast that) as I don't otherwise have bond exposure in non-futures portfolio.
Three areas where I do things slightly different that I would be curious of everyone's thoughts no.
(1) Related to Kernfusion post about asset class weights:
I have put a lot of thought into this issue, as for example there are a lot of grains (4) and developed market FX (5) with low vol*notional that I can trade with my relatively modest portfolio size. Having more instruments within an asset classs should provide a higher asset class level sharpe ratio (given diversification benifit), and thus lead to a higher optimal weight vs. assets classes with fewer instruments. My initial solution was to assign highest level asset class (i.e. commoditiy, FX, bonds, equity, vol) a handcrafted weight, but then assign the weight to each sub asset classes (i.e. within developed country FX and emerging country FX) based on the sqrt of the number of instruments in each assets class. So for example if I have 5 developed market FX instruments and 3 emerging market FX instruments than I allocated my FX weight as sqrt(5)/((sqrt(3)+sqrt(5)) = 0.564 to the developed market FX subgroup and sqrt(3)/((sqrt(3)+sqrt(5)) = 0.436 to the emerging market subgroup (and then equal weight within the subgroup). This approach was motivated by a post Rob awhile back. A benifit of it is that as I add more instruments to my system that the weights automatically update to account for the added diversification within each sub asset group.
I recently further refined this approach to account for that fact that by weighting by the sqrt of the # of instrumetns, I am implicitly assuming that each instrument within the subasset class has a zero correlation (which is needed for the sharpe ratio to increase by the sqrt of N and thus the sqrt weighting to make sense). I therefore modified the weigthing formula to account for the correlation between instruments between a subasset group. To simplify things I use an average of the correlation across all instruments within the subasset class. Within getting into the weeds of the forumla, if I assume that correlations of the 5 developed market FX instruments is 0.65 and correlations of 3 emerging market instruments is 0.35 than I get a 0.47 weight to developed market FX and a 0.53 weight to emerging market FX.
(2) Size of System / Relation to Overall Portfolio
It seems like most people here run the system given a certain notional size and volatility target (i.e. $500K at 25% vol). I take a different approach, which is to target risk as a proportion of my overall portfolio. Right now my risk target is 6%; so if my overall portfolio $1m, I set my vol*notional at $1m * 0.06 * 2.5 IDM = $180K. This level adjusts every day then based on how my overall portfolio does. I think that the benifit of this apporach from an asset allocation propective is that my allocation to my futures strategy stayes fixed relative to all of my other allocations. I guess the disadantage is that if my futures trading is in reality a money loser, I will keep throwing money at it (i.e. as it loses money to the rest of the portfolio, I would in effect rebalance into it to keep it a the fixed % relative to my overall portfolio).
(3) Cross Sectional System
The eurpean sector futures have always facinated me, but I didn't have enough capital to allocate to enough of them in my regular system to (in my mind) take full advantage of their existance). At some point in Rob's past to do lists, I remember him mentioning potentially running a cross-sectional system on the european sector futures (maybe I am misrembering and apologies if so). So I recently took a shot at this, and was wondering what everyones thoughts are (given my limited coding skills I havn't been able to run backtests, but think that it is well supported by academic literature on cross-sectionally targeting factors in equities). The basic set up of the system is as follows (which I am running at 1% vol- 1/6th of my regular system):
(i) Take forecasted values (from regular system) for european equity indices and demean (I am actually not perfectly demeaning as I am allowing for a small long or short bias so that I have net exposure that matches my target to the european equities in my overall system).
(ii) Otherwise allocate to instruments identically as in regular system.
There are some quirks in this approach, such as that instruments are no longer bound at +/- 20 (for example in an instrument had a +20 forecast, but the average was -5, the demeaning would cause it to have a +25 forecacst). Also because of discreate nature of instrument sizes it is not exactly market netural. Also the european equity index futures are expense to trade relative to other instruments (still below speedlimit) which is annoy.
Anyway curious of everyones thoughts about these depatures and thanks again for all the help insight that has bee provided in the 413 pages of this amazing thread. I am working further automate my currently hacked together system with proper coding (am working with a computer science friend to that end).
*And one last note. In the spirit HWM discussoin on this forum, hit a sort of HWM on April 30th, said it out loud, and have since had three days, each of which would qualify as among my worst days in recent months. Still working on the trading rule for that one.
I have been running a manual system (I don't have strong coding skills so it is a bunch of crazy excel worksheets that sound like how CTAs used to do it 30 years ago) for the past 18 months that has evolved from trying to reinvent the wheel in terms of system structure (while targeting carry & trend); to evolving to something very close to Rob's static system as I learned best practices. Currently have ~30 instruments in the system; plus 5 european equity index futures that I run with a related cross-sectional system; plus a long bias to bonds (I add a constant value to my forecast that) as I don't otherwise have bond exposure in non-futures portfolio.
Three areas where I do things slightly different that I would be curious of everyone's thoughts no.
(1) Related to Kernfusion post about asset class weights:
I think with handcrafting the top level weight allocation shouldn't really be 1\n, exactly because some groups have too few instruments in them (or we should try to come up with some even higher-level groups e.g. 'financials' for all stocks, bonds and volatility).. And on the other hand, the groups with many diversifying instruments should probably receive higher allocation.. E.g. My agriculture top-level group has 19 instruments (and it contains weird\diversifying things like Coffee, Milk and Orange Juice) and my InterestRate group only 6, so it sort of makes sense to give more weight to agriculture.. This logic makes things kind of arbitrary I think, because we could end up forcing the group weight that we (almost subjectively) like.. Here's my current top-level weights, and I can't really explain how I came up with them, they started as the result of pysystemtrade optimization, but I then adjusted them manually..
View attachment 338397
I have put a lot of thought into this issue, as for example there are a lot of grains (4) and developed market FX (5) with low vol*notional that I can trade with my relatively modest portfolio size. Having more instruments within an asset classs should provide a higher asset class level sharpe ratio (given diversification benifit), and thus lead to a higher optimal weight vs. assets classes with fewer instruments. My initial solution was to assign highest level asset class (i.e. commoditiy, FX, bonds, equity, vol) a handcrafted weight, but then assign the weight to each sub asset classes (i.e. within developed country FX and emerging country FX) based on the sqrt of the number of instruments in each assets class. So for example if I have 5 developed market FX instruments and 3 emerging market FX instruments than I allocated my FX weight as sqrt(5)/((sqrt(3)+sqrt(5)) = 0.564 to the developed market FX subgroup and sqrt(3)/((sqrt(3)+sqrt(5)) = 0.436 to the emerging market subgroup (and then equal weight within the subgroup). This approach was motivated by a post Rob awhile back. A benifit of it is that as I add more instruments to my system that the weights automatically update to account for the added diversification within each sub asset group.
I recently further refined this approach to account for that fact that by weighting by the sqrt of the # of instrumetns, I am implicitly assuming that each instrument within the subasset class has a zero correlation (which is needed for the sharpe ratio to increase by the sqrt of N and thus the sqrt weighting to make sense). I therefore modified the weigthing formula to account for the correlation between instruments between a subasset group. To simplify things I use an average of the correlation across all instruments within the subasset class. Within getting into the weeds of the forumla, if I assume that correlations of the 5 developed market FX instruments is 0.65 and correlations of 3 emerging market instruments is 0.35 than I get a 0.47 weight to developed market FX and a 0.53 weight to emerging market FX.
(2) Size of System / Relation to Overall Portfolio
It seems like most people here run the system given a certain notional size and volatility target (i.e. $500K at 25% vol). I take a different approach, which is to target risk as a proportion of my overall portfolio. Right now my risk target is 6%; so if my overall portfolio $1m, I set my vol*notional at $1m * 0.06 * 2.5 IDM = $180K. This level adjusts every day then based on how my overall portfolio does. I think that the benifit of this apporach from an asset allocation propective is that my allocation to my futures strategy stayes fixed relative to all of my other allocations. I guess the disadantage is that if my futures trading is in reality a money loser, I will keep throwing money at it (i.e. as it loses money to the rest of the portfolio, I would in effect rebalance into it to keep it a the fixed % relative to my overall portfolio).
(3) Cross Sectional System
The eurpean sector futures have always facinated me, but I didn't have enough capital to allocate to enough of them in my regular system to (in my mind) take full advantage of their existance). At some point in Rob's past to do lists, I remember him mentioning potentially running a cross-sectional system on the european sector futures (maybe I am misrembering and apologies if so). So I recently took a shot at this, and was wondering what everyones thoughts are (given my limited coding skills I havn't been able to run backtests, but think that it is well supported by academic literature on cross-sectionally targeting factors in equities). The basic set up of the system is as follows (which I am running at 1% vol- 1/6th of my regular system):
(i) Take forecasted values (from regular system) for european equity indices and demean (I am actually not perfectly demeaning as I am allowing for a small long or short bias so that I have net exposure that matches my target to the european equities in my overall system).
(ii) Otherwise allocate to instruments identically as in regular system.
There are some quirks in this approach, such as that instruments are no longer bound at +/- 20 (for example in an instrument had a +20 forecast, but the average was -5, the demeaning would cause it to have a +25 forecacst). Also because of discreate nature of instrument sizes it is not exactly market netural. Also the european equity index futures are expense to trade relative to other instruments (still below speedlimit) which is annoy.
Anyway curious of everyones thoughts about these depatures and thanks again for all the help insight that has bee provided in the 413 pages of this amazing thread. I am working further automate my currently hacked together system with proper coding (am working with a computer science friend to that end).
*And one last note. In the spirit HWM discussoin on this forum, hit a sort of HWM on April 30th, said it out loud, and have since had three days, each of which would qualify as among my worst days in recent months. Still working on the trading rule for that one.
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