Hi GAT,
For the forecasting portion of your system, specifically the annualisation of volatility, doesn't that assume some 'normalcy' in the volatility returns distribution, and/or stationarity? If so, how is that rationalized in context of the system at-large, be it that the looseness in trading rules compensates for it, or other factors?
I don't really understand the question if I'm being honest.
I assume that the distribution of forecasts is sufficiently nice and stationary such that using a fixed figure for mean absolute deviation is a good thing to do. This doesn't have to be Gaussian - any symmetric distribution that is stable is fine.
I also assume that standard deviation and the correlation of the underlying instrument returns are appropriate and stable measures of risk.
GAT
