Thank you for your fast reply and for dissecting the proposal. It helps me to understand how to look at the mean and the distribution (skew) separately. And in what way each of these influences the overall result.
Your remarks about "demean"ing inspires me to look at the bigger picture. In my case do I have a long-only buy&hold ETF portfolio with exposure to the US equity market. Plus the futures trading system which also includes the US equity indexes (e.g. SP500, NASDAQ). The purpose of the futures system is to provide diversification to the ETF portfolio. I'll have to consider whether I want to mean or demean the related futures instruments: would that influence (improve?) the diversification? Or would I make things overly complicated for myself, without getting a real benefit from it? I like to keep things simple, but I also like to have a positive financial benefit.
In this case it would make sense to demean your equity and bond markets, but not the other asset classes.
Think of your futures portfolio without demeaning as being composed of equity/bond beta (due to the systematic bias in the mean forecast) and some other stuff (equity/bond timing, plus beta and timing in other asset classes). You also have another lump of equity/bond beta in ETFs. The reason we don't consider demeaning the other asset classes is because we're not getting that other asset class beta anywhere else, whereas we have the option of getting it in ETFs for bonds/equities.
The question is what is the right allocation to these two things (equity/bond beta, and the other stuff)?
Having decided that, what is the best way to get that allocation? You may prefer to have an explicit allocation only via ETFs. The demeaning makes a lot of sense. For an insitutional investor, obsessed with buckets and style boxes, this is probably the path to do.
Or you may be happy to have some of your beta coming from your futures portfolio. Then don't demean.
The problem comes that demeaning or not demeaning, but not changing the allocation vis a vis ETFs and futures, will cause second order effects. So for example if you demean without changing your futures bucket allocation relative to ETFs then you will also create an implicit rebalancing from equity/bond beta towards the other stuff. If that's what you want, then fine. But if not, you may want to consider changing your futures bucket weighting.
Now if your futures portfolio is relatively well diversified then the amount of equity/bond beta that is in it will be very small indeed; small enough that this discussion is pretty academic. On the other hand if you're only trading S&P and US treasuries then this could actually be a pretty big decision worth spending a lot of thought on.
Hope that makes sense.
GAT
