In my opinion that formula is incorrect, or incomplete.
The basis of the formula, I assume, is the equation
Vol2^2 = (Vol1^2*T1 + Vol3^2*T3 )/T2 + ((M1âM2)^2*T1 + (M3âM2)^2*T3)/T2
I couldnât find a quick web reference but it is standard statistics stuff.
Here I write Vol instead of IV (Iâd better write StDev). For example, Vol2 is the complete âIVâ over 90 days, Vol1 over the first 30 days and Vol3 over the last 60 days, so Vol3 would be the Forward Vol youâre looking for.
M1, M2 & M3 are respective MEANS of the data series (of the log price changes).
The righthand part of the right side of the equation (the complete M-part) is a problem because we donât know M2 and M3. So why not simply ignore this part? Then solve whatâs left over for Vol3 (the Forward vol) and you end up with the risklatte formula.
But based on this the formula is obviously incorrect. However, I checked a few stock price series and the missing part usually turns out very small, so I guess the formula just serves as a practical estimation.
Now you still donât know its relevance to (vanilla) options but at least you know itâs âwrongâ
