Quote from pbw:
The Eur/GBP only lost 7 pips b/c it barely moved in the last few days. Whereas there was lots of movement in the GBP/USD(moved 263 pips) and EUR/USD (moved 179 pips) --
so where is this correlation that was talked about? It was argued that EUR/GBP is the same as GBP/USD & EUR/USD but there is only one spread as opposed to the two spreads. Any clarifications appreciated.
Again why have some said hedging currencies do not work. What is the rational behind the statement. Eager to know your thoughtful views.
Current Market Rates
EUR/USD = 1.5374
GBP/USD = 2.0108
EUR/GBP = .7645
If you are trading 100k lots then you are trading 100,000 units of EUR and 100,000 units of GBP. The dollar value of 100,000 units of EUR is $153,740. The dollar value of 100,000 units of GBP is $201,080.
If you buy one lot of EUR/USD and sell one lot of GBP/USD then you are net short $47,340 of the GBP. (153,740 - 201,080).
If the EUR/USD drops by 1% you lose $1,537.40 on your EUR/USD trade.
If the GBP/USD drops by 1% you make $2,010.80 on your short GBP/USD.
If you bought the EUR/GBP you would have broken even if both the EUR and GBP dropped 1% against the USD.
The profit of $473.40 is based purely on your position size.
This is the primary reason why your trades of EUR/USD plus GBP/USD are not the same P/L as your EUR/GBP trades.
Trading one lot of EUR/USD and one lot of GBP/USD is not the same as trading one lot of EUR/GBP. You would need to trade 1 lot of GBP/USD and 1.3079 lots of EUR/USD to be the same as one lot of EUR/GBP.
Hope this helps