Newbie to Forex again. Thanks for your indulgence. I was wondering what I am missing in the following rough calculation of a spread between the cash Swissie and the Mar futures.
Lets say I long 100K cash at 1.18500 for about 1K margin.
And I short the March futures at 1.19500 for about 2,500 margin.
We're talking an arb here (yeah, sure it can blow out somewhat before the futures expire but an arb is an arb) of about 100 pips, no? Or 1000 CHF?
What do I have wrong?
Lets say I long 100K cash at 1.18500 for about 1K margin.
And I short the March futures at 1.19500 for about 2,500 margin.
We're talking an arb here (yeah, sure it can blow out somewhat before the futures expire but an arb is an arb) of about 100 pips, no? Or 1000 CHF?
What do I have wrong?
