Quote from daniel_m:
question from an idiot:
if the company pays the dividend, that money is now in the hands of the investor.
if the investor uses that money to "turn around and with those dividends buy the company's shares on the market", another investor gets the proceeds of that transaction, not the company itself, right? so the company then has less cash, regardless of what the investor does with the dividend. so how is this the same thing?
what am i getting wrong?
Quote from WDGann:
Anyone know how the Dogs of the Dow are doing for the past few years... [/B]
... you make it sound as if it wasn't factored in for some reason.Quote from daniel_m:
i think that's a good point.
i was just recently looking through some of this stuff myself. from my admittedly limited understanding, the returns on that long-term-buy-hold crap just looks so pathetically weak unless you factor in dividend payments (and reinvestment).
Dividends only count b/c there are market frictions and b/c there are psychological nuances to their existence.i think this is the area where EMH really comes to the fore -- seems to me that anyone following the 'investment' advice in the popular books is fooling himself if he thinks that he's gonna start uncovering next-big-thing type growers for the next 15-20 years with his pathetic homemade fundamental anlayses. i say dividends count, and count big.
Quote from Babak:
It is the same from the viewpoint of the company. It isn't from the viewpoint of the investor. Because some would sell while others may want the dividend. In any case it is only a theory. Albeit one that won its creators the Nobel prize.
Quote from vladiator:
Why is it not the same from the perspective of an investor, ignoring market frictions??? I either get the dividend or have a "homemade" dividend by selling a portion of my stocks after the price gain.