Hi
The value of an american style option has to be positive.
I would like to explain a situation that has happened a few times.
In a multyleg strategy my sold put become ITM and I am early assigned, somy position is bought in stocks. Then the margin requirement is higher than my available cash so I have to remake the position.So I sell stocks and sell another otm put and my position remains as the begining. To do that I have 10 minuts, from 9.30 to 9.40 EST ,
because if not the broker will autoliquidate my positions.
I use to make a combo order, selling 100 stocks and selling 1 put. It seems normal that the price of the combo would be higher than the price of the stock, since i am selling the stock and a put, but it's not like that, always I have to give up some cents.
So for example if Spy is trading at 240, i sell the spy and the put for 238,97 otherwise my order is not filled.
Yes I am selling a free put.
It seems the broker know i am in a hurry to get my order filled and take advantage of that. Is that posible, a broker would do a thing like that?
But do not want to accuse anyone. Maybe it is because at that time the market makers still do not know what prices to quote for the puts.
I would like to know opinions about that please.
thanks
The value of an american style option has to be positive.
I would like to explain a situation that has happened a few times.
In a multyleg strategy my sold put become ITM and I am early assigned, somy position is bought in stocks. Then the margin requirement is higher than my available cash so I have to remake the position.So I sell stocks and sell another otm put and my position remains as the begining. To do that I have 10 minuts, from 9.30 to 9.40 EST ,
because if not the broker will autoliquidate my positions.
I use to make a combo order, selling 100 stocks and selling 1 put. It seems normal that the price of the combo would be higher than the price of the stock, since i am selling the stock and a put, but it's not like that, always I have to give up some cents.
So for example if Spy is trading at 240, i sell the spy and the put for 238,97 otherwise my order is not filled.
Yes I am selling a free put.
It seems the broker know i am in a hurry to get my order filled and take advantage of that. Is that posible, a broker would do a thing like that?
But do not want to accuse anyone. Maybe it is because at that time the market makers still do not know what prices to quote for the puts.
I would like to know opinions about that please.
thanks