Quote from shopster:
...1.00 - .86 is .23
I'm not here to pick a fight with you Shopster. I really like the thread topic. I just don't like the cryptology, but as you made clear, it's your thread to run as you like, so no problem.
But 1.00 -.86 = .14, you dig?
I think a better explanation would be as follows:
In the short GBP.USD example, the 86% refers to the relationship of the rally/reaction to the first leg of the decline. You would need first to draw the fib tool from the highest high to the low of that initial decline. You would then await price to retrace, according to Shopster, 86% of that initial decline.
Once price retraces to that level. i.e. retraces at least 86% of the initial decline, then, if divergence is present on his indicator, the SHOPSTER would initiate a short position with a stop loss somewhere, presumably, above the recent high.
Now that SHop is short, he erases the fib tool that was drawn from initial high to initial low. He now draws the fib tool anchoring it from that initial low and drawing it up to the new lower high/double top. He sets his profit targets (1.618, 2.618, 3.14, 4.23, 5.76) based upon the fib tool drawn on that second leg.
The confusion you are experiencing is due to the fact that the OP has not explained how he anchors the fib tools. 86% measures the first leg down. That 23.6 that is confusing you is completely irrelevant to the Shop's example. Ignore it. Pretend it is not there.
STEP ONE - First Leg: Draw fib tool from high to low, trade once retrace is >= 86% if divergence is present.
STEP TWO Second Leg: Once the retracement hits 86% of the first leg, remove the fib tool and redraw the tool from low to high. Set profit targets.
How's that sound, teach?
Best Wishes,
Thales