by way of efc, fewer than 5% of top-tier bank traders have Sharpe ratios above 3:
https://news.efinancialcareers.com/jp-en/312321/get-trading-job-bluecrest-capital-management-now
specifically,
"Some traders cast aspersions on BlueCrest's alleged new choosiness. "A sharpe ratio of two is good, but not incredible," says one. "Admittedly most guys in a bank are on 0-1.5, but the real outliers are on 3+." Fewer than 5% of top traders at banks like Goldman Sachs and J.P. Morgan are thought to hit sharpe ratios of three and above, he added."
on job ads for stat arb guys, the sharpe requirement is usually around 2, eg:
https://www.efinancialcareers.nl/jo...folio_Manager.id04361262?page=8&backLpId=s015
a few points/ questions:
- supposedly the market's Sharpe is around 0.5 (https://www.capitalspectator.com/are-recent-sp-500-returns-excessive-part-iii/)
- warren buffett's Sharpe has been estimated at 0.76 (http://docs.lhpedersen.com/BuffettsAlpha.pdf)
- when the traders maintain Sharpe >2 or 3 over an extended period of time, are they mostly running quant strategies? you hear of hfts with sharpe >3, wondering if the other strategies with similar risk-adjusted returns are low-frequency quant strategies, and to what extent discretionary strategies can achieve a high Sharpe (supposedly Michael Platt of Bluecrest never had a drawdown above 3%, go figure)
- what would be the unlevered annual return profiles of guys with Sharpe of 2-3? are we talking about 8-10% on an unlevered basis, if that, because there's no shortage of reports of how hedge funds are making quite subpar returns for a lot of investors, despite bank traders always making the move to hedge funds
- when the bank traders generate profits while keeping their Sharpe high, is their edge coming from sources other than superior analysis? bc why do you hear of bank traders losing on their personal accts, or having subpar returns after making the move to the buyside? what is it exactly that helps them generate the high risk-adjusted returns when they trade for the banks, if not superior analysis?
- for bank traders who are seen as top of their class, are they making $$$ with high Sharpes by virtue of their positions on the bank's trading desk, which gives them private insight on order flow from their clients ahead of time, and the stop levels, etc, instead of pure analysis per se of widely available info? what else? if just the former, surely they wouldn't be seen as all that 'valuable' for hedge funds, because who would pay top dollar to hire someone who by definition would lose their previous edge when they come to you?
https://news.efinancialcareers.com/jp-en/312321/get-trading-job-bluecrest-capital-management-now
specifically,
"Some traders cast aspersions on BlueCrest's alleged new choosiness. "A sharpe ratio of two is good, but not incredible," says one. "Admittedly most guys in a bank are on 0-1.5, but the real outliers are on 3+." Fewer than 5% of top traders at banks like Goldman Sachs and J.P. Morgan are thought to hit sharpe ratios of three and above, he added."
on job ads for stat arb guys, the sharpe requirement is usually around 2, eg:
https://www.efinancialcareers.nl/jo...folio_Manager.id04361262?page=8&backLpId=s015
a few points/ questions:
- supposedly the market's Sharpe is around 0.5 (https://www.capitalspectator.com/are-recent-sp-500-returns-excessive-part-iii/)
- warren buffett's Sharpe has been estimated at 0.76 (http://docs.lhpedersen.com/BuffettsAlpha.pdf)
- when the traders maintain Sharpe >2 or 3 over an extended period of time, are they mostly running quant strategies? you hear of hfts with sharpe >3, wondering if the other strategies with similar risk-adjusted returns are low-frequency quant strategies, and to what extent discretionary strategies can achieve a high Sharpe (supposedly Michael Platt of Bluecrest never had a drawdown above 3%, go figure)
- what would be the unlevered annual return profiles of guys with Sharpe of 2-3? are we talking about 8-10% on an unlevered basis, if that, because there's no shortage of reports of how hedge funds are making quite subpar returns for a lot of investors, despite bank traders always making the move to hedge funds
- when the bank traders generate profits while keeping their Sharpe high, is their edge coming from sources other than superior analysis? bc why do you hear of bank traders losing on their personal accts, or having subpar returns after making the move to the buyside? what is it exactly that helps them generate the high risk-adjusted returns when they trade for the banks, if not superior analysis?
- for bank traders who are seen as top of their class, are they making $$$ with high Sharpes by virtue of their positions on the bank's trading desk, which gives them private insight on order flow from their clients ahead of time, and the stop levels, etc, instead of pure analysis per se of widely available info? what else? if just the former, surely they wouldn't be seen as all that 'valuable' for hedge funds, because who would pay top dollar to hire someone who by definition would lose their previous edge when they come to you?