Quote from romSPG:
From a given 2) (implied vol) how can I compute the expected activity/range in $?
Assuming the trader can price #3 better than the market, how does she exploit it? Can she exploit it on a daily basis?
IV is just the market's guess, first of all, and it may be right or it may be wrong. The future is kind of tough to predict.
However, the formula for what the market is expecting is as follows:
(Volatility level/100)/sqrt(365/No of days)
Sqrt = Square root
Or, for the denominator, ((365/No of days)^.5), which gives the same answer. (see Fractional Exponents
here)
So, given an IV of 37.15%, and an expiration for some option 70 days in the future, you do (37.15/100)/sqrt(365/70) = .16.
This gives you the percent the market expects it to move over the period given. Thus, .16, or 16%, is the percent band you can expect it to move in for the next 70 days.
All financial arithmetic assumes a normal distribution, by the way, and that's implicit in this formula. In the markets, normal is normal until it ain't. That's the fun part, or not, depending on if you get caught without an umbrella when the rain comes.