Perhaps a dumb question, but I specialize in those...
When we see $SPX at 1148, is that number already normalized for the value of the dollar at that moment?
In other words on two different days (day1: DX == 95.00, day2: DX == 80.00) if $SPX is 1148 on both days, is the market value truly equal on day1 compared to day2, or is it actually worse on day2 (b/c of a weaker dollar)?
Is this true for all indicies (dow, nasdaq, S&P, etc...)?
When we see $SPX at 1148, is that number already normalized for the value of the dollar at that moment?
In other words on two different days (day1: DX == 95.00, day2: DX == 80.00) if $SPX is 1148 on both days, is the market value truly equal on day1 compared to day2, or is it actually worse on day2 (b/c of a weaker dollar)?
Is this true for all indicies (dow, nasdaq, S&P, etc...)?