Okay, I will take your word that people complain less about the bashing of one group (your example Jews) and complain more about bashing other groups.
My question is about the rules of conduct.
It has been stated:
victimizes, harasses, degrades, or intimidates an individual or group of individuals on the basis of religion, gender, sexual orientation, race, ethnicity, age, or disability;
So if only a single individual complains that a thread which degrades Jews, or Muslims, or women, etc....that valid complaint (according to rules of conduct) would show that the post in question violates the rules of conduct, right?
If multiple complaints are registered because of a thread that degrades a different group, say blacks or white male Christian republicans, those complaints are equally valid because the post in question violates the rules of conduct, right?
So, what is the real rule of conduct? Anything goes, any bashing, any use of profanity, pornography, etc. as long as insufficient numbers of people complain?
Is a single complaint when there has been an actual violation of the rules of conduct, as the rules of conduct are stated sufficient to have some active moderation, or is there a different formula in play?
I am not saying any moderators are doing anything wrong, I am just asking for clarification. The previous post in feedback where this was discussed did a good job to show your thinking on how moderation is actually done, having less impact because of the stated rules, and more focus on the squeaky wheels when the wheels are in larger numbers, or the person/group under attack is a moderator, a vendor, etc. but that thread was recently deleted.
Perhaps you can make some definitive statement that we can all be referred to, a permanent post or a modification of the stated rules of conduct, just so that everyone fully understands what the rules really are...
My question is about the rules of conduct.
It has been stated:
victimizes, harasses, degrades, or intimidates an individual or group of individuals on the basis of religion, gender, sexual orientation, race, ethnicity, age, or disability;
So if only a single individual complains that a thread which degrades Jews, or Muslims, or women, etc....that valid complaint (according to rules of conduct) would show that the post in question violates the rules of conduct, right?
If multiple complaints are registered because of a thread that degrades a different group, say blacks or white male Christian republicans, those complaints are equally valid because the post in question violates the rules of conduct, right?
So, what is the real rule of conduct? Anything goes, any bashing, any use of profanity, pornography, etc. as long as insufficient numbers of people complain?
Is a single complaint when there has been an actual violation of the rules of conduct, as the rules of conduct are stated sufficient to have some active moderation, or is there a different formula in play?
I am not saying any moderators are doing anything wrong, I am just asking for clarification. The previous post in feedback where this was discussed did a good job to show your thinking on how moderation is actually done, having less impact because of the stated rules, and more focus on the squeaky wheels when the wheels are in larger numbers, or the person/group under attack is a moderator, a vendor, etc. but that thread was recently deleted.
Perhaps you can make some definitive statement that we can all be referred to, a permanent post or a modification of the stated rules of conduct, just so that everyone fully understands what the rules really are...
Quote from Baron:
We can't read every post in every thread. So to keep control over the content, we respond to complaints from members about specific posts or threads that clearly violate our member rules of conduct. I had multiple complaints in my email about that black thread when I got up this morning.
For whatever reason, people don't complain as much about the Jewish posts or threads.
