So revisiting this after some time...
If I take what you say literally, we have:
- dec-jan
- jan-feb
- feb-mar
- mar-apr
- apr-may
- may-jun
Which of course simply cancels out to just dec-jun.
However, we know that between dec-jun there could be all manner of stuff going on that could dislocate the curve, such that individual 1-month spreads would have different characteristics than the 6 month. True, while summed they'd equal out (ignoring friction), but individually they represent something different of course. Based on what you said in a previous post:
In essence it seems like what you're trading here is normalization of the curve rather than how the curve itself changes over time. But to do that, it assumes a predictable and consistent curve shape (dare I say smooth and logarithmic), right? How would you even apply something like that to NG or HO for example which tend to have various disruptions in the curves? I guess one could have an idea of how normal said "disruption" actually is based on history but then why not just target that portion of the curve explicitly? Additionally, by being +6 feb-mar and -1 dec-jun aren't you actually really exposed to that feb-mar portion of the curve if some kind of seasonal or otherwise dislocation happened?
I feel like there is a hidden risk here in that 6 x feb-mar doesn't completely translate to 1 x dec-jun even if dec-jun can be mathematically composed of 6 individual 1 month calendars, inclusive, because it assumes a smooth normalized curve is the "mean." Maybe in markets where the latter months tend to be proportionally affected by "disruptions" of earlier months this translates well, but I'd think markets which can get hit with heavier seasonal effects there could be potentially other concerns. Am I missing something?
e.g. non-"smooth/logarithmic" curves:
View attachment 162758
View attachment 162759
And a typical (for these days) Brent curve:
View attachment 162760
Given what you said earlier, I'd imagine you'd be targeting jan/feb'18 here (a week ago)?