Just wondering what the implication for a homeowner is....
here is a hpothetical:
homeowner buys house for 500k in 2002
get a new mortage now at appraised value of 1 million, pockets the $500k extra cash from the new $1 million mortgage
invests the 500k cash
say the housing market absolutely crashes back to where the house is worth 500k, 2002 levels
can the homeowner give the keys back to the bank, tell the bank tough luck, the homeowner just forecloses on the home and get a major credit ding.
then when the home goes up for auction, homeowner uses the 500k cash and buys the same house outright and then owns the same house free and clear with no mortgage?
where is the flaw im my logic (and lets just assume prices do crash, please dont turn this into a real estate up or down type argument)
here is a hpothetical:
homeowner buys house for 500k in 2002
get a new mortage now at appraised value of 1 million, pockets the $500k extra cash from the new $1 million mortgage
invests the 500k cash
say the housing market absolutely crashes back to where the house is worth 500k, 2002 levels
can the homeowner give the keys back to the bank, tell the bank tough luck, the homeowner just forecloses on the home and get a major credit ding.
then when the home goes up for auction, homeowner uses the 500k cash and buys the same house outright and then owns the same house free and clear with no mortgage?
where is the flaw im my logic (and lets just assume prices do crash, please dont turn this into a real estate up or down type argument)
