If Markets go according a Random Walk, then how does one account for market arbitrage. If the price of of a security is random then sure that would perfectly account for a price discrepancy between markets. It would seem that the variance between the two markets could theoretically be quite wide.
However, when the arbitrageurs enter and bring the price back to relative parity, it would be hard to say that the move from relative disparity to parity between the two markets is an entirely random process.
However, when the arbitrageurs enter and bring the price back to relative parity, it would be hard to say that the move from relative disparity to parity between the two markets is an entirely random process.