An investor gets a free put at strike zero by law. Could a leveraged long side trader writes a put for free without knowing it? Example: if one buys a stock at 100 on say 5:1 margin, one may implicitly writes a put at strike 80, but receives no premium in return. Is this correct? If you disagree explain why? If you agree explain why? If correct, how come the leveraged trader gives money for free? Is it the cost of knowledge or a deliberate choice?
I believe that there may be people who may have even gone bankrupt because they may have not understood the part on the writing of the free put in leveraged/margin accounts.
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I believe that there may be people who may have even gone bankrupt because they may have not understood the part on the writing of the free put in leveraged/margin accounts.
All rights are reserved.
