so according to the formula given, future price will always be higher than the cash...because 't' will always be higher than 1 yr.
but from your experience has it gotten more than 40 - 50 pips...trying to find a historical data..
'scarletfire' said for the most part it will go parallel...unless it is arround sept ( futures expiration dates etc .. )where it will almost merg

this gives me a smile face
but from your experience has it gotten more than 40 - 50 pips...trying to find a historical data..
'scarletfire' said for the most part it will go parallel...unless it is arround sept ( futures expiration dates etc .. )where it will almost merg

this gives me a smile face