Hmmm...Let's see here now:
1. Is there a difference between "theft" and "inability to pay"?
2. Isn't the burden mostly on the lender since the lender approved the loan?
3. Shouldn't there be a maximum amount (let's just say $5,000) at which a person knows he could be sent to jail if it can be reasonably demonstrated that he intentionally abused his creditors?
4. Or does it have to be liberal vs. conservative, like all other issues discussed here on ET???
1. Is there a difference between "theft" and "inability to pay"?
2. Isn't the burden mostly on the lender since the lender approved the loan?
3. Shouldn't there be a maximum amount (let's just say $5,000) at which a person knows he could be sent to jail if it can be reasonably demonstrated that he intentionally abused his creditors?
4. Or does it have to be liberal vs. conservative, like all other issues discussed here on ET???