I'm endeavouring to work out the disparity in implied volatility of an identical strike 24h apart for a S&P500 option.
My initial notion is to add up the alteration of delta, gamma, theta and the spot-volatility correlation vega + delta in the following manner:
Price of the Option t0
-/+(dDelta)/(dSpot)
-/+0.5 * Gamma * (dSpot)^2
-/+ Theta * dt
-/+ dIV/dSpot * Vega
-/+ dIV/dSpot * Delta
-------------------------------------------
= Option Price t+1 adjusted
-------------------------------------------
= Option Price in IV t+1
- Option Price in IV t0
-------------------------------------------
= Change in IV adjusted
Am I making a mountain out of a molehill? Could a percentage rate for the difference in Delta be adequate?
My initial notion is to add up the alteration of delta, gamma, theta and the spot-volatility correlation vega + delta in the following manner:
Price of the Option t0
-/+(dDelta)/(dSpot)
-/+0.5 * Gamma * (dSpot)^2
-/+ Theta * dt
-/+ dIV/dSpot * Vega
-/+ dIV/dSpot * Delta
-------------------------------------------
= Option Price t+1 adjusted
-------------------------------------------
= Option Price in IV t+1
- Option Price in IV t0
-------------------------------------------
= Change in IV adjusted
Am I making a mountain out of a molehill? Could a percentage rate for the difference in Delta be adequate?
I am grateful for your help. I completely slipped up and overlooked accounting for the IV for those 24h 