Greetings!
In Canadian RRSP or TFSA accounts, you can’t execute a standard credit spread because margin isn't allowed. However, you can simulate one by selling a covered call and buying a further out-of-the-money (OTM) call.
The goal is to generate income from long-term positions while minimizing the opportunity risk of getting assigned and missing out on potential upside if the stock rallies.
This approach allows you to choose the level of potential opportunity loss. For example, right now, the 10-days-out SPY ATM (549) call is priced at 6.43 (delta 0.508), and the 551 call (delta 0.455) is at 5.28, resulting in a net credit of 1.15. The breakeven point is 550.15 on this option play.
Additionally, if this strategy does make sense, what would be the optimal width of the spread to maximize return?
Finally, am I correct in assuming that the probability of the long option being ITM, given that the short option is ITM, can be estimated by dividing the delta of the long option by the delta of the short one? In this case, 0.455/0.508 ≈ 0.896, or roughly 89.6%.
Thanks!
In Canadian RRSP or TFSA accounts, you can’t execute a standard credit spread because margin isn't allowed. However, you can simulate one by selling a covered call and buying a further out-of-the-money (OTM) call.
The goal is to generate income from long-term positions while minimizing the opportunity risk of getting assigned and missing out on potential upside if the stock rallies.
This approach allows you to choose the level of potential opportunity loss. For example, right now, the 10-days-out SPY ATM (549) call is priced at 6.43 (delta 0.508), and the 551 call (delta 0.455) is at 5.28, resulting in a net credit of 1.15. The breakeven point is 550.15 on this option play.
- Max profit: 1.15 if both options expire out of the money (OTM).
- Potential opportunity cost: If both options expire in the money (ITM), the opportunity cost is limited to 0.87.
Additionally, if this strategy does make sense, what would be the optimal width of the spread to maximize return?
Finally, am I correct in assuming that the probability of the long option being ITM, given that the short option is ITM, can be estimated by dividing the delta of the long option by the delta of the short one? In this case, 0.455/0.508 ≈ 0.896, or roughly 89.6%.
Thanks!