As a example i have taken RYLD CC ETF which buy VTWO ETF on Russell 2000 and sell ATM CC on RUT. I read this
https://www.globalxetfs.com/content/files/Options_Strategy_Overview.pdf There is written that
Buy reference index components, write monthly ATM 1 index calls on 100% of the fund's portfolio in an effort to maximize income.
I don't know if I understood correctly. Example RUT value will be 8000 points (1xmultiplier) and VTWO will be 80USD they buy 100 shares of VTWO which has value 8000USD and they sell 1 contract ATM CC option on RUT strike price 8000 premium will be 3%=240USD. After 30 days option expire worthless becose its below strike price close 7000. Price of index will be 7000 and value of ETF VTWO will be 70USDx100 shares=7000USD . Than the portfolio manager sell this 100 shares total value will be 7000+240 premium total 7240 fund has loss 760USD and than he buy 103 shares x70 in value of 7210USD and than sell 1 contract ATM CC option with strike price 7000 premium will be 3%=210USD and so on?
Did I understand that well?
https://www.globalxetfs.com/content/files/Options_Strategy_Overview.pdf There is written that
Buy reference index components, write monthly ATM 1 index calls on 100% of the fund's portfolio in an effort to maximize income.
I don't know if I understood correctly. Example RUT value will be 8000 points (1xmultiplier) and VTWO will be 80USD they buy 100 shares of VTWO which has value 8000USD and they sell 1 contract ATM CC option on RUT strike price 8000 premium will be 3%=240USD. After 30 days option expire worthless becose its below strike price close 7000. Price of index will be 7000 and value of ETF VTWO will be 70USDx100 shares=7000USD . Than the portfolio manager sell this 100 shares total value will be 7000+240 premium total 7240 fund has loss 760USD and than he buy 103 shares x70 in value of 7210USD and than sell 1 contract ATM CC option with strike price 7000 premium will be 3%=210USD and so on?
Did I understand that well?
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