So hear me out on this. Not practically, but just for discussion's sake.
Technically, if someone put on trades with a blindfold, and then put a stop at 1R, and held all winners until 3R, would they be profitable?
Every trade can be viewed as a plot point on the chart. Every trade that you take will be SOMEWHERE in 20 minutes. Up, down, sideways, somewhere in between.
So over the course of say, 500 trades, there would be a random distribution of plot points from -3R, up to +3R, and everywhere in between. (It could be farther out than 3R, I'm keeping it simple).
So by placing a stop at -1R, you are ensuring that all plot points that would have landed from -1R down to -3R never materialize. While at the same time, you allow all of the plot points from ZeroR to +3R to fully actualize. Thoughts?
I'm not suggesting anyone would do this, but it seems like an interesting discussion which has ramifications for risk management.
Technically, if someone put on trades with a blindfold, and then put a stop at 1R, and held all winners until 3R, would they be profitable?
Every trade can be viewed as a plot point on the chart. Every trade that you take will be SOMEWHERE in 20 minutes. Up, down, sideways, somewhere in between.
So over the course of say, 500 trades, there would be a random distribution of plot points from -3R, up to +3R, and everywhere in between. (It could be farther out than 3R, I'm keeping it simple).
So by placing a stop at -1R, you are ensuring that all plot points that would have landed from -1R down to -3R never materialize. While at the same time, you allow all of the plot points from ZeroR to +3R to fully actualize. Thoughts?
I'm not suggesting anyone would do this, but it seems like an interesting discussion which has ramifications for risk management.
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