As someone who has never used futures, I have always simply purchased ETFs on margin if I desired to use any leverage. I was told that with futures I would avoid paying the margin interest that is required when you buy stock on margin. But isn't there an implicit cost of interest in the futures contract? That is, in an efficient market, wouldn't this difference between stocks and futures be arbitraged? Therefore it wouldn't matter the type of instrument used and one would be indifferent? I'm sure I'm wrong but don't understand why. Would really appreciate an answer to this newbie question.
Maybe you could illustrate the difference for me with an simple example. Say I wanted to buy $2 worth of S&P 500 exposure for every $1 dollar invested. Could you illustrate the difference for me using SPY (using a portfolio margin account at IB) and using the E-mini S&P 500 mini contract to achieve the same 2:1 exposure? I know that you can get much greater leverage with futures due to the lower margin requirement, but I still don't understand how it is also cheaper.
Thanks in advance.
Maybe you could illustrate the difference for me with an simple example. Say I wanted to buy $2 worth of S&P 500 exposure for every $1 dollar invested. Could you illustrate the difference for me using SPY (using a portfolio margin account at IB) and using the E-mini S&P 500 mini contract to achieve the same 2:1 exposure? I know that you can get much greater leverage with futures due to the lower margin requirement, but I still don't understand how it is also cheaper.
Thanks in advance.