Quote from morganist:
i am glad i got so many responses to this thread and that it is a divided response.
i would say from reading the comments though that although i understand the points made that inflation is purely related to money supply this is something that you have to take into consideration.
when the money supply changes yes it has an affect on the purchasing power of the currency namely deflation or inflation. the point made that a reduction in the amount supplied impacts on the ratio between goods and money supply is important. although it is due to supply and demand it in it self makes certain goods or the overall cost of goods more expensive. so although it is not necessarily what the current macroeconomic perspective would consider to be inflation it will have an affect on the affordability of goods that people can purchase.
this relative affordability is something that affects peoples lives and has to be recorded so whether it is inflation (a price rise due to money supply increase) or whether it is simply a shortage in the supply of the goods it has to be acknowledged as it has an impact on peoples lives. as it means that goods are less available to people and more of the currency has to be expended to attain the same number of goods than before the supply shift it has to be acknowledged as a form of inflation even if it is not technically inflation as it has an impact on the purchasing power of people in society. the whole purpose of the inflation measurement is to see how it affects people lives through the goods that they can purchase.
i will make one final comment. the concept of cost push inflation was devised by keynes who set the inflation rate as a way of measuring the availability of resources people could purchase with their income. the monetarists do not see the supply of a good as inflation not because it is not something that impacts on peoples lives but because they believe it to be related to money supply, which in its own way is correct. it is as a result of supply shifts not the alteration of money supply.
my point being neither is incorrect they are simply different definitions of the term inflation. the keynesian definition is related to the purchasing power of individuals relating to the affect supply of goods and the money supply has on peoples lives. the monetarists on the other hand believe inflation is merely the quantity of the money supply and reductions in the availability of goods supplied is a supply shift and if it impacts on peoples lives it should not be considered a form of inflation.
my view is that the keynesian definition of inflation although not necessarily the correct understanding is the more useful in providing standard of living, which is in my opinion the reason the inflation figures are collected. i will continue to use the term cost push inflation even if it not correct because it is a way that something that impacts on peoples lives can be described and should be recognised.
is that a good answer?
The answer is really based on circular reasoning.
Keynes coined the phrase, and stated that cost-push occurred when labor and/or materials increased in price suddenly while demand for the end product remains constant.
It's definitely real, IMO, since Keynes framed what it was.
We can see it occur in the real world.
Of course, producers can choose to swallow the marginal increases in costs, which would mean they wouldn't push the cost on to consumers, but that's only the case when demand is declining or will decline if they push.