Hi - want to understand if this is a more bullish position.
Suppose one has the AAPL Jan 2016 130 calls.
One can then sell a higher strike call (say the 160's), and take in some premium (netting to cash). Of course this is less bullish as it limits upside.
HOWEVER, suppose one then takes the cash from the short leg of the spread made above, and then purchases a more bullish 140/160 call spread?
So the 1 130 call
is converted to a 130/160 bull call spread AND some quantity of a 140/160 bull call spread.
How do I evaluate whether these two spreads are more bullish than the orignal outright vanilla call?
If a price target is required, let's say the target is the 160.
Thanks for your expertise.
Suppose one has the AAPL Jan 2016 130 calls.
One can then sell a higher strike call (say the 160's), and take in some premium (netting to cash). Of course this is less bullish as it limits upside.
HOWEVER, suppose one then takes the cash from the short leg of the spread made above, and then purchases a more bullish 140/160 call spread?
So the 1 130 call
is converted to a 130/160 bull call spread AND some quantity of a 140/160 bull call spread.
How do I evaluate whether these two spreads are more bullish than the orignal outright vanilla call?
If a price target is required, let's say the target is the 160.
Thanks for your expertise.
