The problem here is we're trying to calculate probabilities of a certain event happening after most of the event has already occurred. Let me give an example. Let's say that we did a historical study and found that the market closed up just as many times as it closed down. I know that's not accurate, but it's probably not too far off. I'd be surprised if it closed up more than 55% of the time. Anyway, for the sake of argument, let's say the odds off getting an up day are 2:1.
Starting before day 1, the odds of getting 8 consecutive up days is 256:1 (2 to the 8th power.) However, if we are now past day 7, and have had 7 consecutive up days, the odds of getting an up day are 2:1. It's not 256:1. You don't base the odds on past behavior, whether it's flipping coins, rolling a die, or measuring the market.
Again, the stock market is a lot more complicated than dice or coins. And we may have our own reasons for believing the market will close up or down on day 8. But even if we could somehow factor in those variables, the odds would still be fairly close to 2:1 for getting an up day. Maybe it's 1.8:1, maybe it's 2.2:1; who knows?
I personally would bet that the market would close up that 8th day, given the strength that the market has been exhibiting.
One thing that's clear, though, this is the wrong way to figure out the odds: find out how many times 8 consecutive up days has occurred, seeing the relatively low occurrence, and concluding that the odds of getting an up day 8 are remote. If you wanted to do a historical test, you would find out how many 7 day streaks you had. Then find out how many times the following day was up. That would give you your historical probability, for whatever that's worth.