Although the synthetic equivalent of a collar is a bull call spread, I have a question concerning the adjustment of collars, as recommended by some "experts", such as Optionetics...
Many contend that the key to success when trading collars, is the ability to adjust the option positions when significant price movement in any direction occurs. In other words, if you entered a collar (having atm puts & calls), and the market subsequently drops by 10+%, then it would be best to roll the short call and the long put down toward the new atm strike prices. The idea is that if the market reverts (bounces) back, then you'll make a profit. However, if you failed to roll the options down after the market declined, then you would miss an opportunity to profit on the retracement.
Fundamentally, I don't understand the veracity of such a statement. Furthermore, I've yet to experience such results in any testing. The only benefit I observed with experiencing a decline of 10+% is that you now get to buy shares at a lower price as you increase the size of the collar. In doing so, you'll have a chance to profit with a smaller retracement. In effect, this principle of averaging down (scaling-in) appears to be the real benefit of experiencing a material drop in the price of the underlying stock (with the benefit of limiting your loss to a certain floor amount, not withstanding).
Please help me to understand what I'm missing with this notion of rolling down the short calls & long puts when a material drop in the stock price occurs, so that you can allegedly realize a profit (some contend a substantial profit) when/if the market retraces (bounces).
thanks,
Walt
Many contend that the key to success when trading collars, is the ability to adjust the option positions when significant price movement in any direction occurs. In other words, if you entered a collar (having atm puts & calls), and the market subsequently drops by 10+%, then it would be best to roll the short call and the long put down toward the new atm strike prices. The idea is that if the market reverts (bounces) back, then you'll make a profit. However, if you failed to roll the options down after the market declined, then you would miss an opportunity to profit on the retracement.
Fundamentally, I don't understand the veracity of such a statement. Furthermore, I've yet to experience such results in any testing. The only benefit I observed with experiencing a decline of 10+% is that you now get to buy shares at a lower price as you increase the size of the collar. In doing so, you'll have a chance to profit with a smaller retracement. In effect, this principle of averaging down (scaling-in) appears to be the real benefit of experiencing a material drop in the price of the underlying stock (with the benefit of limiting your loss to a certain floor amount, not withstanding).
Please help me to understand what I'm missing with this notion of rolling down the short calls & long puts when a material drop in the stock price occurs, so that you can allegedly realize a profit (some contend a substantial profit) when/if the market retraces (bounces).
thanks,
Walt
