As a relatively new trader, until a few days ago, I was unaware of the CME's "Stop with Protection" Rule. I've read up on the rule and think I have a pretty good understanding, but would like some clarification from more experienced traders on one aspect of that rule.
Let's use ES for this discussion.
Let's say I short ES at 2900 and I place a Buy Stop at 2905. The market goes down a bit and at 4:00 PM CT, I'm up 6 points on the trade and I decide to keep my position open during the one hour close to see what the evening session does.
During the one hour closure, the guy in the White House tweets something that makes the market go bonkers with joy, and when the market starts trading again at 5 PM CT, the price gaps up and opens at 2930, completely jumping my Buy Stop.
As I understand the CME rule, my Buy Stop at 2905 automatically becomes a Buy Stop-Limit at 2908, calculated by taking one half the Non-Reviewable Trading Range for ES and adding that to the original Buy Stop price. The Non-Reviewable Trading Range for ES is 6 points, so adding 3 points to my original 2905 Buy Stop gives me a Buy Stop-Limit at 2908.
As I further understand, if the market does not trade "through" with enough liquidity that allows me to get filled between 2905 and 2908, my position remains open and my 2908 Buy Stop-Limit just sits there waiting until the market returns to its senses and price drops back down to 2908, where my Buy Stop-Limit would be filled and I would lose 8 +/- points on the trade.
But what happens if the market does not come back down to 2908, ever?
At some point, the trade has to be resolved. My account would continue to rack up horrible losses. I would be buried in margin calls. That is the reason I only use Stops, never Stop-Limits. And yet,in the above scenario, I would be stuck in an untenable situation all because of the CME's "Stop with Protection" Rule.
This is not making any sense to me. Am I missing something about how that CME rule works?
And I know the rule is in effect because I can see my Stop order with a Price1 and Price2. Price1 being my original Stop price and Price2 being 3 points further away as the Stop-Limit price.
I would post links to what I've read about the rule, but this is my first post, so I am probably not yet trustworthy.
George
Let's use ES for this discussion.
Let's say I short ES at 2900 and I place a Buy Stop at 2905. The market goes down a bit and at 4:00 PM CT, I'm up 6 points on the trade and I decide to keep my position open during the one hour close to see what the evening session does.
During the one hour closure, the guy in the White House tweets something that makes the market go bonkers with joy, and when the market starts trading again at 5 PM CT, the price gaps up and opens at 2930, completely jumping my Buy Stop.
As I understand the CME rule, my Buy Stop at 2905 automatically becomes a Buy Stop-Limit at 2908, calculated by taking one half the Non-Reviewable Trading Range for ES and adding that to the original Buy Stop price. The Non-Reviewable Trading Range for ES is 6 points, so adding 3 points to my original 2905 Buy Stop gives me a Buy Stop-Limit at 2908.
As I further understand, if the market does not trade "through" with enough liquidity that allows me to get filled between 2905 and 2908, my position remains open and my 2908 Buy Stop-Limit just sits there waiting until the market returns to its senses and price drops back down to 2908, where my Buy Stop-Limit would be filled and I would lose 8 +/- points on the trade.
But what happens if the market does not come back down to 2908, ever?
At some point, the trade has to be resolved. My account would continue to rack up horrible losses. I would be buried in margin calls. That is the reason I only use Stops, never Stop-Limits. And yet,in the above scenario, I would be stuck in an untenable situation all because of the CME's "Stop with Protection" Rule.
This is not making any sense to me. Am I missing something about how that CME rule works?
And I know the rule is in effect because I can see my Stop order with a Price1 and Price2. Price1 being my original Stop price and Price2 being 3 points further away as the Stop-Limit price.
I would post links to what I've read about the rule, but this is my first post, so I am probably not yet trustworthy.

George
.