Closing an ITM option position - disregard midpoint and base on intrinsic value?

[trade-9]

I sold an in the money call option at $1.92 when bid was $1.71 and ask was $2.45 but immediately after I sold (within the same second), the bid jumped $0.50 to $2.25 (probably because they realized a sucker [me] was selling at a steal - the underlying wasn't moving quickly at the time to warrant anything remotely like that).

Looking back on it after the fact, at the time of sale it turns out the underlying was $71.82 and the option strike was $69.50, so the intrinsic value was $2.32. Any thoughts on how I should use the intrinsic value to set my limit price? I'm thinking there should be some rule of thumb for this which disregards the midpoint in a case like this. As a side note, I think the option had about 200 OI but not a lot of sales such that the bid would stay more "accurate" so to speak.

I guess another approach in the future would be to sell one contract at potentially a discount to start to "fix" the bid, and then sell the rest based on the midpoint, but ideally I wouldn't have to resort to that and could get the best price on all of the contracts.

 

[OptionGuru]

I assume you bought those at a lower price when they were OTM?

If so then I would be a motivated seller and be happy with the $1.92, even if it's lower than intrinsic value. Take the money and run.

 

[stepandfetchit]

IMO: trading non-liquid instruments can result in non-optimal results!!! There is insufficient data provided to give a more comprehensive response. -- Time left in the contract (entry or exit), reason for making the trade at the specific time. If at expiration, "Curtain 1", else consider "curtains 2 through 4"!

 

[botpro]

Take this tip of mine:

Just sell 1 more at a better price. ;-)
By this method of splitting the position over at least 2 trades you can beat the price manipulation bastards... ;-)

But first do the maths...

Of course works only with at least two contracts, and if the commission is cheap like at IB...

Update:
sorry, I was thinking you are opening a short position.
No, you closed the position. Ok, it's then too late... ;-(

 

[rmorse]

I sold an in the money call option at $1.92 when bid was $1.71 and ask was $2.45 but immediately after I sold (within the same second), the bid jumped $0.50 to $2.25 (probably because they realized a sucker [me] was selling at a steal - the underlying wasn't moving quickly at the time to warrant anything remotely like that).

Looking back on it after the fact, at the time of sale it turns out the underlying was $71.82 and the option strike was $69.50, so the intrinsic value was $2.32. Any thoughts on how I should use the intrinsic value to set my limit price? I'm thinking there should be some rule of thumb for this which disregards the midpoint in a case like this. As a side note, I think the option had about 200 OI but not a lot of sales such that the bid would stay more "accurate" so to speak.

I guess another approach in the future would be to sell one contract at potentially a discount to start to "fix" the bid, and then sell the rest based on the midpoint, but ideally I wouldn't have to resort to that and could get the best price on all of the contracts.

Yes, you have to value the option yourself and not use the mid point for options like that.

 

[trade-9]

Yes, you have to value the option yourself and not use the mid point for options like that.

Is there a formula you recommend using in determining how to value it? Should you never sell for more than a few cents lower than the intrinsic value for example, unless fast moving underlying?

 

[2rosy]

PM me before you sell. I will post a better bid

 

[trade-9]

PM me before you sell. I will post a better bid

LOL

 

[OptionGuru]

PM me before you sell. I will post a better bid

And why would you do that?

 

[ironchef]

I sold an in the money call option at $1.92 when bid was $1.71 and ask was $2.45 but immediately after I sold (within the same second), the bid jumped $0.50 to $2.25 (probably because they realized a sucker [me] was selling at a steal - the underlying wasn't moving quickly at the time to warrant anything remotely like that).

Looking back on it after the fact, at the time of sale it turns out the underlying was $71.82 and the option strike was $69.50, so the intrinsic value was $2.32. Any thoughts on how I should use the intrinsic value to set my limit price? I'm thinking there should be some rule of thumb for this which disregards the midpoint in a case like this. As a side note, I think the option had about 200 OI but not a lot of sales such that the bid would stay more "accurate" so to speak.

I guess another approach in the future would be to sell one contract at potentially a discount to start to "fix" the bid, and then sell the rest based on the midpoint, but ideally I wouldn't have to resort to that and could get the best price on all of the contracts.

I don't quite understand your situation, did you sell at market? Otherwise why did you offer $1.92 when the intrinsic value was $2.32? Usually when there is time remaining, you can ask to sell close to intrinsic. When I closed out ITM options I was always able to get slightly above/around intrinsic value unless the underlying was going to make a significant move which I did not know but apparently the MM knew. In those cases my limit orders did not get executed but always the stocks made a move soon to reflect the new situation.