Previously reading one of the hall of fame threads about DOM method for trading. The poster claim that if for e.g there are more ask than bids in the ratio of say 2:1, it is more likely for the price to go up in the short term.
From my little experience, this is not the case? Reason being that if there are more ask than bids, it means there is a larger volume of SELLERS than BUYERS. Therefore it makes logical sense that in the short term if bid > ask, the price is likelier to go downwards as those who were "camping" at a higher price might than give up and sell at the lower bids. Also, since there are lesser bids, prices will more drastically shoot downwards as the liquidity is thinner, while it will occur resistance if there is a large number of asks. This is why a sell wall will work so well in pushing the prices downwards and prices will only go up quickly once this resistance is removed.
Can anyone explain to me the reasoning why more asks than bids will result in price going up?
From my little experience, this is not the case? Reason being that if there are more ask than bids, it means there is a larger volume of SELLERS than BUYERS. Therefore it makes logical sense that in the short term if bid > ask, the price is likelier to go downwards as those who were "camping" at a higher price might than give up and sell at the lower bids. Also, since there are lesser bids, prices will more drastically shoot downwards as the liquidity is thinner, while it will occur resistance if there is a large number of asks. This is why a sell wall will work so well in pushing the prices downwards and prices will only go up quickly once this resistance is removed.
Can anyone explain to me the reasoning why more asks than bids will result in price going up?
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