Since your Buyers'/Sellers' Advantage is adaptive, does this mean your spreadsheet's forecasts are based on a moving probability distribution of some kind, or perhaps a Monte Carlo from a trailing period?
Suppose that the probability distribution is as you see it in the graph of the April spreadsheet. Notice on the Analysis tab the advantage is, if I remember correctly, somewhere over 6%. Currently, the S&P Sellers advantage has been reduced to 5.93% as of last night's close. As you can see, from then until now, sellers have been slowly giving up ground. The figure is based upon the difference between Total Selling and Total Buying divided by the Total Analyzed prices; so, the probability distribution is always changing but is as accurate as can be for the amount of data analyzed. For the S&P I used Feb. 2, 2000 for a starting date. In effect, that is a clear negative bias. But at least I can tell that the market has changed from then (last year in March or April) to now. Easy to see in retrospect, not so easy to see as it is happening, perhaps.
The idea of 'states' comes from chaos theory. Simply put, Up Days and Down Days are divided. Next, Up Days are divided into reversal of downtrend days or continution days. Down Days are treated similarly. This leaves me with 4 'states' of the market. But, the market can only remain in its current 'state' or move into one of two other 'states'. In other words, no matter what 'state' the market is currently in, one 'state' is completely unaccessible; you can't get there from here, so to speak. This yields a lopsided probability distribution. It is then a simple matter to determine the most likely close for tomorrow based upon past experience and data. Notice, since there is a chance of the market moving against the dominant probability, as in all odds calculations, it is best to be cautious before betting the ranch.
Bruce