I was hoping someone could help me understand this as FX and currencies aren't my bag:
Due to inflation, banks in Iran are now offering interest rates of ~20%, and from what I've read this has been going on for a while.
On the other hand, the Iranian Rial (IRR) with respect to the dollar has held fairly steady due to CB policy:
http://finance.yahoo.com/q/bc?s=USDIRR=X&t=5y&l=on&z=m&q=c&c=
So my question: how the hell is this possible for so long without the CB exhausting their reserves? I don't know the actuarial risks behind the Iranian government, but I can't imagine it being higher than high risk junk bonds, i.e. shouldn't their reserves been depleted from the result of a carry trade?
Something doesn't add up.
(This is on the presumption that it would be possible to deposit money in Iranian banks from non-US countries)
Due to inflation, banks in Iran are now offering interest rates of ~20%, and from what I've read this has been going on for a while.
On the other hand, the Iranian Rial (IRR) with respect to the dollar has held fairly steady due to CB policy:
http://finance.yahoo.com/q/bc?s=USDIRR=X&t=5y&l=on&z=m&q=c&c=
So my question: how the hell is this possible for so long without the CB exhausting their reserves? I don't know the actuarial risks behind the Iranian government, but I can't imagine it being higher than high risk junk bonds, i.e. shouldn't their reserves been depleted from the result of a carry trade?
Something doesn't add up.
(This is on the presumption that it would be possible to deposit money in Iranian banks from non-US countries)