M
morganist
Quote from kxvid:
You give the example that a richer person has a propensity to consume 1 paying £100 in taxes. Also that a poorer person has a propensity to consume 0.7 paying £70 in tax.
You argue that if you increase taxes on the richer person, and decrease taxes on the poorer person aggregate demand will increase. What makes you think the wealthy person will still consume @ 1 if you increase their taxes? They will naturally have less money to spend.
It is safe to assume that a poorer person consuming @.7 will increase their consumption if they are taxed £15 less. But any increase in aggregate demand due to this increased consumption by the poorer person will be offset by the reduced consumption (due to a £15 tax increase) of the richer person. Aggregate demand would likely actually fall under your proposal due to a reduction in wealth concentrations.
i explained this on the other page.
my position is that for small amounts it will not alter that much. also there are other factors explained than income like culture age etc. some people will spend everything no matter how much you give them. especially now.
thank you for your responses they are interesting and i will consider them.
random capital i will research what you said. note however it is a different time now and situations are different.