Quote from Corey:
Very interesting discussion here. Some food for thought:
...If the market can be extremely accurately modeled using a random walk process that is auto-regressive with both heteroscedastic mu (trend) and sigma (volatility), with some sort of jump process (maybe QGARCH with a jump process) -- does this still preclude TA from working?...
Quote from tradrejoe:
Maestro, thanks for the insight. But I am still uncomfortable with the assumption of Spline analysis that *all* possible information influencing the short term future movements of the S&P 500 is embedded in its own historical prices.
Quote from MAESTRO:
Because if you accept that the markets are Gaussian on the Price/Step plane then at any point of time the probability of the markets to go either up or down is 50/50. That is why any point on the chart picked by any TA method will have the same faith: - 50/50. This is the major difference between TA methods and statistical methods. TA methods are applied to one particular run of the price therefore they are always 50/50 in probability. The statistical methods are different because they deal with the AVERAGE outcome observed on multiple runs. Statistical methods are based on stable distributions and therefore could be used as the solid foundation for the profitable strategies. One could argue that the TA patterns also depict the stable occurrences therefore they are not that different form the statistical methods. It is, however, a wrong conclusion. I will let you discuss WHY as I do not intend to give you all the answers.
Quote from dtrader98:
Corey, I have attached over 20 yrs of S&P500 walks that confirm the empirical data match theoretical avg dev model quite well... until... about 100 steps or so, at which point the avg begins to drift much more positive then the model would suggest. Your notion of drift does not get incorporated into the models earlier data pts. as possibly it is swamped or washed out by the averaging and absolute pre processing step (have to think about it more), however, you can simply use a standard deviation model to confirm the same observation with drift-- shown as sqrt(N*P(1-P)), where p is probability of success trial. The deviation of p from 50% can represent drift (mu), which is a property markets show. There are many other ways to demonstrate proof of drift or positive offset in markets, a great argument for buy and hold in the long run; like it or not (also, another reason why you'll often observe long only strategies tend to perform better than short strategies over the long run).
Secondly, as to why the data starts to deviate after about 100 steps, I believe it has to do with wider (than gaussian) tails in market data beginning to manifest and accumulate (could also be drift accumulating as well). It is similar to the tail behavior you might see in a QQ plot of normal vs. true market behavior. We know that fat tails are more likely to occur about 1/100 events than 1/million (can also see this in power law or 1/f models). So, this is more evidence of my earlier argument that markets are close to gaussian, but worse (wider tails-- jumps, etc).
I would have to think a bit more about the exact incorporation of drift in the simple rw coin toss model Maestro brought up for discussion, although either way it doesn't change my conclusions much.
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Also, before folks think that this observation is the holy grail to nirvana, keep in mind it is an average of a "VERY" large set of trials (central tendency). So while there is truth in the modeling, the key is that you must establish some type of rule to profit off of it. The information alone does not deviate from anything known in modern literature. It does, however, as Maesto said, open your eyes to many fallacies of common TA if you haven't already established that.
Of course, % is not the only value that is "probabilistically" acceptable to use...Quote from MAESTRO:
FANTASTIC! Now, to correct the drift I can suggest using % values of the current prices rather than the absolute values in points (to specify the step value). The drift occurs due to the change in the probabilities of the steps if the ratio between the step value and the actual price is not taking under consideration. But, overall, FANTASTIC! EXCELLENT JOB!
Quote from TSGannGalt:
Let the Random (Normal) begin.
Quote from MAESTRO:
The very last hint I will give you guys is "QUANTUM Random Walk"
Ok, from now on I will only answer PMs from people who will show the progress. Once we establish the circle of interested people we should share the further results privately; after all it is the war out there ...![]()