Then what do they mean by "steep premium" in this article?
Exchange officials dispute that. With the stock market in free-fall, the risk of buying was too great and traders had to demand steep premiums to protect themselves from disaster. "It's like walking into a burning house and trying to buy fire insurance. Of course it costs a lot," said a CBOE spokesman."
https://www.washingtonpost.com/arch...ped-out/090c57f7-fc75-4f02-9d22-585cf53c8548/
With the market tanking like that, the put option that the guy in the article shorted must've been WAY DITM so the delta should've been absolutely 1 and if the gamma is 0 when the delta is 1, WHERE did these premiums and steep premiums come from??!! Everything should be intrinsic value; there should've been no premiums. If you look at an DITM option right now with delta of 1, gamma of 0 from any option table, its price is exactly the intrinsic value but that's not how it happened that day obviously. If it could happen back then, it could happen today and it does happen today, just on a muted level because of circuit breakers.
Unless you have the option chain of SPX from that day to show me on that day, even in such extreme market condition that for all DITM put options, the gamma were all zero and the option prices were all equal to intrinsic value then I am willing to at least accept the fact that gamma does behave according to option pricing models.
I did but they don't really go into details to explain the specific mechanism or process of how it works in mitigating a volatile market aka a meltdown except just to say "it gives market makers a break for them to cover their risk".
I don't. I admit. That's why I was asking if you can share some insight as how MM's worked during extremely volatile markets to cover for risk. That's why I asked previously specifically:
- What happened to all of the flood of orders from "the retail shmucks,lax clearing agents and vol sellers who were being forced to liquidate"?
- What happens to their liquidating orders? What happens to all the unfilled orders when circuit breakers get triggered and/or the market closes? Do the MM's just stop taking their liquidating orders and the orders just all disappear and the "the retail shmucks,lax clearing agents and vol sellers who were being forced to liquidate" just end up with the losses?
-Are the MM's allowed to do that? I thought the MM's are legally bound to make market to uphold the integrity of the market, no? So what if they still want to liquidate the next day or after the circuit breaker is off? That would still drive the market down and the put option prices up but how come it didn't?
-What is it that MM's did that made the price stop rising? Could the MM's have done that BEFORE the circuit breakers get triggered or the market closes or do they absolutely need that "break"?
If you are able to share your insight by answering these questions above then I would appreciate it. It's ok if you don't but how do you explain then how would the price continue to spiral down until it's stopped by circuit breakers or market closing? I mean if you say MM's look to the futures market for hedging then what does the futures market look to? What determines the prices in the futures market?
You guys were the ones who decided to ask me to explain "infinite gamma" so I explained. LOL