It's ex-dividend date today and the stock went up. Why didn't the stock go down by the dividend amount as many say it would.
It's ex-dividend date today and the stock went up. Why didn't the stock go down by the dividend amount as many say it would.
View attachment 180128
That's what I originally said about you. Read the thread, BTW it wasn't a question. You're the one that said the dividend is built in.If you had a clue about how the stock exchanges handle share price on the ex-dividend date, you wouldn't be asking such silly questions.
Because stock prices go up and down, including on the dividend dates (in fact, this stock has actually opened down by the dividend amount, but some do not). This is equivalent to measuring the curvature of your side walk and concluding that the earth is flat.It's ex-dividend date today and the stock went up. Why didn't the stock go down by the dividend amount as many say it would.
View attachment 180128
Yup, that's one way to put it. While there are various statistical do-hickies to do around and about dividends, you can't really capture them in an arbitrage sense of that word.I assume given the manner in which upcoming dividends are accounted for in option pricing that options provide no opportunity for high confidence "dividend capture"?
I have skipped the early parts of the thread since it was too adolescent for my taste, so I can't really comment on the trade or the rationale for it.That's why i placed the trade to prove option premium is determined by traders regardless of dividend.
First of all, IRL there is some uncertainty about the dividend expectations. Sometimes longer dated stock forwards will be trading too cheap because MMs are too short calls, for example and want to hedge against an unexpected dividend hike. The opposite also could happen. There are more short-dated games involving over-priced dividend convexity in American options.