I was re-reading my copy of "Options as a Strateic Investment" by McMillan and I came across this:
"...bull spreads are not for traders since the spread differential changes mainly as a function of time, small movements in price by the underlying stock will not cause much of a short term change in the price of the spread."
Anyone with experience in options care to comment? I was reading the section on spreads since I wanted to move from using straight call/put positions to using spreads. But when I came to that section I paused. He doesn't really add anything further than the above. It still left me a little puzzled as I have anecdotal evidence that spreads are used all the time (especially by professional traders) and that they are favoured over straight put/call positions.
The reason why I wanted to use spreads is that I want to separate the volatility component of the trade. Let say I think IBM will go up. I can buy the call options. But this position will leave me exposed to a potential downward move in implied volatility which could erode any gains by IBM's move upward or exacerbate a downward move by IBM.
If I enter using a bull spread (lets say using calls) then I would buy the IBM 70 call and sell the IBM 80 call (of same time duration). This hedged position would protect me in case of a decrease in the IV since the decrease in my long call's value would be offset by the decrease in my short call's value. Leaving me with a stripped leverage vehicle to trade IBM.
Is that correct? am I missing something? Thanks in advance.
"...bull spreads are not for traders since the spread differential changes mainly as a function of time, small movements in price by the underlying stock will not cause much of a short term change in the price of the spread."
Anyone with experience in options care to comment? I was reading the section on spreads since I wanted to move from using straight call/put positions to using spreads. But when I came to that section I paused. He doesn't really add anything further than the above. It still left me a little puzzled as I have anecdotal evidence that spreads are used all the time (especially by professional traders) and that they are favoured over straight put/call positions.
The reason why I wanted to use spreads is that I want to separate the volatility component of the trade. Let say I think IBM will go up. I can buy the call options. But this position will leave me exposed to a potential downward move in implied volatility which could erode any gains by IBM's move upward or exacerbate a downward move by IBM.
If I enter using a bull spread (lets say using calls) then I would buy the IBM 70 call and sell the IBM 80 call (of same time duration). This hedged position would protect me in case of a decrease in the IV since the decrease in my long call's value would be offset by the decrease in my short call's value. Leaving me with a stripped leverage vehicle to trade IBM.
Is that correct? am I missing something? Thanks in advance.
that you (babak, not Gat) were using today's prices. At the money or close to the money is going to move faster than out of the money, and the further out of the money, then the slower still. If in your example IBM were at 81, the spread could help you achieve your objective. But not at 67 and change, or wherever it closed today. And the 70/75 spread as GATrader says, would be more effective as well....for exactly the reasons he states.