Got to admit I have a soft spot for them, here's a 1 min Scalp chart with 6 period Triangular moving average with +2 offset
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Quote from phg:
How does the offset work? That is (I guess) what bars are used to compute the triangular MA whose value is used to detect the crossover with the BB MA? (For my edification, formulas and parameter values would help me understand what is going on.) (Like the chart!) My thanks in advance.
-Pete
Quote from hypostomus:
Whitster. I was deadly serious. I have spent many a dark night attempting to devise a volatility-based reversal indicator. Perversely (or perreversally), every one I tested was better if recast as a continuation indicator. Big runs draw old ladies away from their knitting and attract mischievous cats to unattended keyboards.
Quote from piezoe:
(It is Sat. night, it is cold and rainy, and generally miserable outside, so rather than watch George Foreman demostrate his new weenie cooker i decided to haunt these forums.)
I want to throw in a little comment here regarding the interpretation of Bollinger's bands. It is often said that when prices stray two standard deviations from their mean, that "there is a only a five percent chance of the price moving further away from the mean." Or other equivalent and equally incorrect statements. Bollinger, himself, to my knowledge, never made such an error of interpretation. I read his book ages ago.
That business of assigning probabilities comes straight out of statistics for a normally distributed population with a fixed and known population standard deviation. In that case, it is true that 95% of observations that might be drawn from the population would fall, on average, between plus or minus 1.96 standard deviations of the population mean.
But i have never seen any data that would suggest that individual stock prices observed for finite periods are normally distributed about the mean. anyone in this forum have any idea what the distribution function of prices about the mean actually looks like? I would be most curious to know, and of course delighted if the distribution actually did obey Gauss's function. Surely there are some Ph.D. physicists toiling late into the night for Goldman that could shed light on this issue. Or perhaps one of you guys with access to raw time and price data will plot the actual distribution out so we can see what it looks like.
In the meantime, we ought not to attribute specific % probabilites to price interceptions of the bands. Not anyway until we hear definitively from the physicists. There is nothing at all wrong with calculation of the standard deviation, however, since in any case that calculation is going to give us the most efficient estimate of the price scatter. Whoever said here that the bands give us a measure of volatility was certainly correct -- but it is not correct to attach specific probabilities without knowing what the form of the distribution function is.
Now, there, don't you'all wish i'd go back to Foreman and his weenie roaster?