Hello ETâs
I need some help on a few rookie questions regarding the Bid/Ask and the Spread. Lets suppose for argument sake that the current price in the S&P E-Mini is Bid at 1234.00, and the Ask/Offer at 1234.50, and the "Last" price at 1234.25
Ambiguity aside, I understand that the "Last" trade is not the actual price of the S&P. The last trade is simply that, the last trade. In any case, the actual price for someone who wants to Buy is the Ask/Offer 1234.50 (In other words, they pay what is Asked at 1234.50 to open a position). The actual price for someone wishing to sell is the Bid 1234.00 (they pay to receive the Bid at 1234.00 to open a position).
So, the current Bid is where "the market" (i.e. the exchange) is willing to Buy the S&P, and the current Ask is where "the market" (the exchange) is willing to Sell the S&P. But you and I, as retail guys and non-exchange members, I have to Buy at the Ask, and Sell at the Bid.
Therefore, the "Last" price is virtually meaningless to my buying and selling activity, unless that price is at the Bid/Ask, because I must Buy at the Ask, and must Sell at the Bid. To my knowledge, the "Last" price is only available to exchange members and selective associates. My questions are these:
1. Why is there a spread between the Bid and the Ask, and why isn't it single price available to anyone?
2. Why does the spread exist if the spread has no inherent value, or is not available to any one?
3. If the Spread is in fact exchange generated, can the "Spread" still vary from brokerage to brokerage?
4. I have seen some DOMâs (Depth of Market) on ET, wherein there appears to be no Bid/Ask price. And there is only one single price where they can either Buy or Sell. And if the trader "clicks" at this price, they get that price. Do these traders still pay the Spread, or are they possibly renting exchange seats in order to transact at this single price, or is there some other thing going on?
Thanks
 
I need some help on a few rookie questions regarding the Bid/Ask and the Spread. Lets suppose for argument sake that the current price in the S&P E-Mini is Bid at 1234.00, and the Ask/Offer at 1234.50, and the "Last" price at 1234.25
Ambiguity aside, I understand that the "Last" trade is not the actual price of the S&P. The last trade is simply that, the last trade. In any case, the actual price for someone who wants to Buy is the Ask/Offer 1234.50 (In other words, they pay what is Asked at 1234.50 to open a position). The actual price for someone wishing to sell is the Bid 1234.00 (they pay to receive the Bid at 1234.00 to open a position).
So, the current Bid is where "the market" (i.e. the exchange) is willing to Buy the S&P, and the current Ask is where "the market" (the exchange) is willing to Sell the S&P. But you and I, as retail guys and non-exchange members, I have to Buy at the Ask, and Sell at the Bid.
Therefore, the "Last" price is virtually meaningless to my buying and selling activity, unless that price is at the Bid/Ask, because I must Buy at the Ask, and must Sell at the Bid. To my knowledge, the "Last" price is only available to exchange members and selective associates. My questions are these:
1. Why is there a spread between the Bid and the Ask, and why isn't it single price available to anyone?
2. Why does the spread exist if the spread has no inherent value, or is not available to any one?
3. If the Spread is in fact exchange generated, can the "Spread" still vary from brokerage to brokerage?
4. I have seen some DOMâs (Depth of Market) on ET, wherein there appears to be no Bid/Ask price. And there is only one single price where they can either Buy or Sell. And if the trader "clicks" at this price, they get that price. Do these traders still pay the Spread, or are they possibly renting exchange seats in order to transact at this single price, or is there some other thing going on?
Thanks