So, do I understand correctly, that if a B/D is not FINRA registered, they're not subject to the maximum 1:7 leverage rule ? And if a B/D is FINRA registered and their clearing firm would WANT to give them 1:20, their clearing firm is simply not allowed to do that ?
Also, what I don't understand: for every dollar that's been trading, must there be a dollar 'real' money in somebody's account ? Or can a clearing firm give leverage to a client without having the total sum of money in their own account ?
For example, a clearing firm wants to give a client $4 to trade with. The client deposits $1. Does this mean the clearing firm has to supply the other $3 ? Because if this is not the case, then the clearing firm is actually 'creating' money, right ? They then could 'create' money and invest this themselves ...
Also very confused here ...
Also, what I don't understand: for every dollar that's been trading, must there be a dollar 'real' money in somebody's account ? Or can a clearing firm give leverage to a client without having the total sum of money in their own account ?
For example, a clearing firm wants to give a client $4 to trade with. The client deposits $1. Does this mean the clearing firm has to supply the other $3 ? Because if this is not the case, then the clearing firm is actually 'creating' money, right ? They then could 'create' money and invest this themselves ...
Also very confused here ...