Hello
I would like to ask you a few questions about how the assignment mechanism works, and how the broker does,
and what are the implications on the required margin. Again a non experinced questions, sorry.
Let's say it is a multileg SPY strategy, American style options, so could be early assignement and are physically settled.
_ ITM call
The sold call it is deep itm, above 0.90 delta, since the begining of the strategy. Probably if there is dividend payment I will be early assigned.
So how will assignment procces occur?
I.e. In the moment of the sale SPY was at 225
sold call strike 200 for a credit of 25.65 , the Broker requires a margin of 7.200,00 .
and now spy is at 235 .
_ If I don't hold the Underlying, Spy in the example,
_I will have to purchase spy at 235 and sell to the call's holder at 200, How is it done?
1)I will have to have 23.500,00 in cash in my account to deal with the assignment, to buy 100 SPY,
2)or it is done by the difference between 235 and 200?
3)or the broker let me sell 100 spy to the buyer without having those 100 spy. In that case, the broker will charge a large comission or what.
If 2 it is true, I would have to have in the account 3.500,00 approximatly 1.000,00 more that what I received to sell the call. These 1.000 would be the lost.
If 1 it's true, it is possible to use the margin requirement of 8.000,00 to buy 100 SPY ? or I will have to have 8.000 + 23.500 in the account during the settlment?
If 3 it is true, I suppose my new position it is short Spy. The margin will increase to 35.000,00. And what is the short rate for Spy? really don't know.
It seems to be option 2 the best, maybe not for the broker.
_ ITM put
I.e. sold a put strike 260 for a credit of 35.40, when Spy was at 225. The margin required is 8.200,00
Now SPY is at 215
_The owner of the put wants to exercice. I will have to buy 100 Spy shares at 270.
1)I will have to have 27.000,00 in the account to buy 100 shares.
2)It's done by the difference between 270 and the current price, 215.
In option 1) Will have to have 27.000,00 in the account beyond the margin , or can use also the 8.200 in the margin to buy 100 shares.
And what happens if only have the margin requirement, 8.200 in the account and don't have money to buy 100 shares?
my question is if it is possible to say the broker to sell 100 spy first and then buy the 100 I have to buy for the put.
In 2) there will be no problem with the margin.
I want to see if there are any hidden dangers in selling ITM options, apart of the low liquidity.
I again appreciate your answers.
I would like to ask you a few questions about how the assignment mechanism works, and how the broker does,
and what are the implications on the required margin. Again a non experinced questions, sorry.
Let's say it is a multileg SPY strategy, American style options, so could be early assignement and are physically settled.
_ ITM call
The sold call it is deep itm, above 0.90 delta, since the begining of the strategy. Probably if there is dividend payment I will be early assigned.
So how will assignment procces occur?
I.e. In the moment of the sale SPY was at 225
sold call strike 200 for a credit of 25.65 , the Broker requires a margin of 7.200,00 .
and now spy is at 235 .
_ If I don't hold the Underlying, Spy in the example,
_I will have to purchase spy at 235 and sell to the call's holder at 200, How is it done?
1)I will have to have 23.500,00 in cash in my account to deal with the assignment, to buy 100 SPY,
2)or it is done by the difference between 235 and 200?
3)or the broker let me sell 100 spy to the buyer without having those 100 spy. In that case, the broker will charge a large comission or what.
If 2 it is true, I would have to have in the account 3.500,00 approximatly 1.000,00 more that what I received to sell the call. These 1.000 would be the lost.
If 1 it's true, it is possible to use the margin requirement of 8.000,00 to buy 100 SPY ? or I will have to have 8.000 + 23.500 in the account during the settlment?
If 3 it is true, I suppose my new position it is short Spy. The margin will increase to 35.000,00. And what is the short rate for Spy? really don't know.
It seems to be option 2 the best, maybe not for the broker.
_ ITM put
I.e. sold a put strike 260 for a credit of 35.40, when Spy was at 225. The margin required is 8.200,00
Now SPY is at 215
_The owner of the put wants to exercice. I will have to buy 100 Spy shares at 270.
1)I will have to have 27.000,00 in the account to buy 100 shares.
2)It's done by the difference between 270 and the current price, 215.
In option 1) Will have to have 27.000,00 in the account beyond the margin , or can use also the 8.200 in the margin to buy 100 shares.
And what happens if only have the margin requirement, 8.200 in the account and don't have money to buy 100 shares?
my question is if it is possible to say the broker to sell 100 spy first and then buy the 100 I have to buy for the put.
In 2) there will be no problem with the margin.
I want to see if there are any hidden dangers in selling ITM options, apart of the low liquidity.
I again appreciate your answers.