Quote from kut2k2:
My point is that price is constantly changing, so how can you assume the only significant difference between t1 and t2 is the presence or absence of some event? Are p1 and p2 different? Apparently so, or you would have said otherwise. Did the price arrive at p1 and p2 from the same velocity, or even from the same direction? There are so many unknowns here I don't know how you can begin to treat them the same.
Even your title says as much: you can't be sure the two samples are from the same population. Price series are not stationary, which is what makes analyzing them so much "fun". *tonguefirmlyincheek*
Sorry, your serious point deserves a serious answer...
I would assume the same criticism might be applied to testing two groups of patients for the effectiveness of a new treatment (apparently that is, or at least has been, a field of application of the two sample K-S test). After all, you could say that the two groups of patients will also be different in so many other ways (i.e. not just in whether that get the new treatment or just the placebo) that you won't be able to isolate the difference you are looking to focus on? No?
Intuitively, I think the response is that if your two groups of patients (or samples of price) are large enough, then you get to the point that both samples contain examples of "all" the things that could be different, and (if you have a big enough sample), the only difference that you end up with is the thing you know about (because you set it up that way). No?
